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Exam2pass > Oracle > Oracle Certifications > 1Z0-574 > 1Z0-574 Online Practice Questions and Answers

1Z0-574 Online Practice Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following statements are true about an end-to-end security strategy?

A. End-to-end security and point-to-point security are virtually identical strategies proposed by different security vendors.

B. End-to-end security strives to protect data at rest, even in temporary queues.

C. End-to-end security often involves some form of message-level protection.

D. When end-to-end security is enabled. Point-to-point transport-level encryption should be disabledin order to avoid cryptography conflicts between layers.

E. End to-end security is highly beneficial for distributed computing environments where many point- point connections and intermediaries exist, because it offers seamless data protection.

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Correct Answer: BCE

Explanation:

B:End to end security is an information-centric perspective of security where information is protected

throughout the entire computing environment. That is, from the points where system interactions originate,

through all points of integration, processing, and persistence.

End to end security is often associated with the secure transmission, processing, and storage of data,

where at no time are data unprotected Note:

For a typical web-based application, end to end security generally begins at the client/browser, and ends at

the application database and all external dependencies of the application.

A common challenge in providing end to end security is finding a suitable way to secure data in all states

and points along the processing path that does not interfere with any transmission, routing, processing,

and storage functions that need to occur along the way. Sensitive data will usually need to be decrypted at

certain points in order for processing or message routing to occur.

Questions 5

Which three primary components form IT Strategies from Oracle (ITSO)?

A. Enterprise Technology Strategies

B. Maximum Availability Architecture

C. Enterprise Solution Designs

D. Oracle Reference Architecture

E. Oracle Enterprise Architecture Framework

F. Oracle Unified Method

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Correct Answer: ACD

Explanation:

ITSO is made up of three primary elements.

Enterprise Technology Strategies (ETS)

Enterprise Solution Designs (ESD)

Oracle Reference Architecture (ORA)

References:

Questions 6

For a large heterogeneous environment with a large number of hosts requiring scalability and efficiency, what is the best strategy for deployment of Oracle Enterprise Manager?

A. Use a centralized control with persistent connections to all agents to pull data.

B. Use multiple semi-autonomous agents collecting information and periodically relaying it to a central repository.

C. Use multiple Instances of Oracle Enterprise Manager to maximize performance.

D. Use centralized alert filtering.

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Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Oracle Enterprise Manager 11g Grid Control has the ability to scale for hundreds of users and thousands of systems and services on a single Enterprise Manager implementation. Can use two instances of Oracle Enterprise Manager for large deployments (10000 clients or more). The architecture for Oracle Enterprise Manager 10g Grid Control exemplifies two key concepts in application performance tuning: distribution and parallelization of processing. Each component of Grid Control can be configured to apply both these concepts. The components of Enterprise Manager Grid Control include:

*

The Management Agent - A process that is deployed on each monitored host and that is responsible for monitoring all services and components on the host. The Management Agent is also responsible for communicating that information to the middle-tier Management Service and for managing and maintaining the system and its services.

*

The Management Service - A J2EE Web application that renders the user interface for the Grid Control

Console, works with all Management Agents to process monitoring and jobs information, and uses the Management Repository as its data store.

*

The Management Repository - The schema is an Oracle Database that contains all available information about administrators, services, and applications managed within Enterprise Manager.

References:

Questions 7

Data is often said to exist in one of three states:

1.

In motion being transmitted over a network or connection

2.

At rest persisted in a queue, disk, file, and so on

3.

In memory loaded into computer memory

The third state, in memory, is seldom mentioned in security standards, texts and requirements. Why?

A. Computer memory has built-in parity checking which protects against malicious alteration

B. No one has direct access to a computer's memory, therefore it is the safest place to be.

C. All modern computers (developed since the mid-90s) automatically store data in memory in encrypted from to help ensure confidentiality and integrity, because of this, more emphasis has been placed on raising the level of protection in the other two states.

D. This state is often overlooked. Data in memory can easily be viewed by anyone with system administrator.

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Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

In Memory - a term used here to describe data that is currently being processed and therefore exposed to

any program, diagnostic tool, operating system command, virus, etc. that is able to access memory.

References:

Questions 8

You are designing a mission-critical application that requires high performance. Your analysis concludes that Oracle Exadata would enable you to meet the performance goals. What characteristics of Oracle Exadata make it possible to provide such superior performance?

A. Oracle Exadata uses massively parallel architecture to speed up Oracle data warehouses by offloading data-intensive query processing from the databases.

B. By pushing SQL processing to the Oracle Exadata Storage Server, all the disks can operate in parallel, reducing database server CPU consumption while consuming much less bandwidth to move data between storage and database servers.

C. The Oracle Exadata Storage Server returns a query result set rather than entire tables, eliminates network bottlenecks, and frees up database server resources.

D. Oracle Exadata uses direct data placement to ensure very low CPU overhead by directly moving data from the wire to database buffers with no extra data copies being made.

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Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

To overcome the limitations of conventional storage, Oracle Exadata Storage Servers use a massively

parallel architecture to dramatically increase data bandwidth between the database server and storage.

Innovative technologies such as Exadata Smart Scan, Exadata Smart Flash Cache, and Hybrid Columnar

Compression enable Exadata to deliver extreme performance for everything from data warehousing to

online transaction processing to mixed workloads.

Questions 9

Which of the following environments are typically clustered?

A. Development Environment

B. User Acceptance Testing (UAT) Environment

C. Staging Environment

D. Nonfunctional Testing Environment

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Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

UAT (also known as beta testing) : Formal testing with respect to user needs, requirements, and business

processes conducted to determine whether or not a system satisfies the acceptance criteria and to enable

the user, customers or other authorized entity to determine whether or not to accept the system.

Incorrect answer:

The staging tier is a environment that is as identical to the production environment as possible. The

purpose of the Staging environment is to simulate as much of the Production environment as possible. The

Staging environment can also double as a Demonstration/Training environment.

References:

Questions 10

Choose the three statements from the following list that accurately reflect architectural principles of Oracle Reference Architecture User Interaction.

A. The architecture must support separating configuration and other types of metadata from the source code.

B. The architecture must support orchestration of business application functions.

C. The architecture must support end-user access to a wide variety of server-side functionality.

D. The architecture must not attempt to replicate the capabilities of traditional client-server GUIs.

E. The architecture must provide secure interaction between the end user and the server-side resources.

F. The architecture must provide the end user with the capability to switch quickly between applications.

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Correct Answer: ACE

Explanation:

* Meta-data support

The architecture must support separating configuration and other types of meta-data from the source code.

*Access to Functionality

The architecture must support end user access to a wide variety of server-side functionality.

*Secure Interactions

The architecture must provide secure interaction between the end user and the server-side resources.

References:

Questions 11

Which of the following is not a key function of an identity management system?

A. user provisioning

B. password maintenance and self-service

C. approval workflow

D. LDAP integration

E. authentication

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Correct Answer: BE

Explanation:

References:

Questions 12

Which statement best describes the role of the Data Movement Layer within the logical view of the Service-Oriented Integration (SOI) architecture?

A. The Data Movement Layer provides access to persistent data storage for the architecture.

B. All write operations on persistent data are performed via the Data Movement Layer.

C. All read operations on persistent data are performed via the Data Movement Layer.

D. All create, read, update, and delete operations on persistent data are performed via the Data Movement Layer.

E. The Data Movement Layer provides batch and bulk data operations for the architecture.

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Correct Answer: E

Explanation: The Data Movement Layer provides the batch and bulk data handling for the architecture. This layer exists primarily to offload bulk data movement from the upper layers in the architecture. Bulk data movement is a necessary evil in many enterprises, and therefore, the architecture must provide a mechanism to provide this capability in an efficient, controlled manner. Without this layer, the other layers in the architecture might be misused to move large blocks of data, a task for which the other layers are ill suited.

References:

Questions 13

Why is it necessary to have Integration of Metadata Repository to the Source Code Management (SCM) server?

A. The SCM needs to access the asset metadata for reporting purposes.

B. The Metadata Repository links the asset metadata to the asset payload, which may be archived in the SCM.

C. The Metadata Repository promotes the assets to the SCM.

D. The Metadata Repository stores the asset metadata in the SCM.

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Correct Answer: B

Explanation: SCM server manages the code base and configuration. It uses file store or database for maintaining the asset payload and to manage the versioning of the assets. Note: The metadata repository is primarily a human interface for asset capture and presentment. It has integration with the service registry to promote the service interfaces and with the security framework for repository security like authentication and access control. It also has integration with other enterprise asset sources like Source Code Management (SCM) tools and file servers. Source Code Management (SCM) is the management of changes to documents, programs, and other information artifacts.

References:

Exam Code: 1Z0-574
Exam Name: Oracle IT Architecture Release 3 Essentials
Last Update: Jun 13, 2025
Questions: 176

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