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Exam2pass > AICPA > AICPA Certifications > CPA-TEST > CPA-TEST Online Practice Questions and Answers

CPA-TEST Online Practice Questions and Answers

Questions 4

If information accompanying the basic financial statements in an auditor-submitted document has been subjected to auditing procedures, the auditor may include in the auditor's report on the financial statements an opinion that the accompanying information is fairly stated in:

A. Accordance with generally accepted auditing standards.

B. Conformity with generally accepted accounting principles.

C. All material respects in relation to the basic financial statements taken as a whole.

D. Accordance with attestation standards expressing a conclusion about management's assertions.

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Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Choice "c" is correct. When an auditor submits a document that contains information in addition to the client's basic financial statements, and this information was subjected to auditing procedures, the auditor may include in the auditor's report an opinion that the information is fairly stated in all material respects in relation to the basic financial statements taken as a whole. This statement would follow the opinion paragraph in the standard report. Choice "a" is incorrect. Information in an ASD is not stated in an auditor's report to be in accordance with GAAS. Instead, the auditor would state that the "information has been subjected to the auditing procedures applied in the audit of the basic financial statements..." Choice "b" is incorrect. The auditor would not state that ASD information was fairly stated in accordance with GAAP. The information in an ASD is in addition to that required by GAAP. Choice "d" is incorrect. Reports on ASD are not "attest engagements."

Questions 5

Which of the following procedures would an auditor most likely perform to obtain evidence about the occurrence of subsequent events?

A. Recomputing a sample of large-dollar transactions occurring after year-end for arithmetic accuracy.

B. Investigating changes in stockholders' equity occurring after year-end.

C. Inquiring of the entity's legal counsel concerning litigation, claims, and assessments arising after yearend.

D. Confirming bank accounts established after year-end.

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Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Choice "c" is correct. The auditor would most likely inquire of the entity's legal counsel concerning litigation, claims and assessments arising after year-end in order to obtain evidence about the occurrence of subsequent events. Claims arising after year-end might well impact the year-end financial statements. Choice "a" is incorrect. Recomputing a sample of large-dollar transactions occurring after year-end for arithmetic accuracy would not provide evidence about year-end amounts. Choice "b" is incorrect. The auditor would inquire about changes in stockholders' equity occurring after year-end, but would not generally perform an investigation of such items. Choice "d" is incorrect. Confirming bank accounts established after year-end is generally not done (only those in existence at year-end are confirmed). Accounts established after year-end generally would not be relevant to year-end amounts.

Questions 6

Which of the following would an auditor most likely use in determining the auditor's preliminary judgment about materiality?

A. The anticipated sample size of the planned substantive tests.

B. The entity's annualized interim financial statements.

C. The results of the internal control questionnaire.

D. The contents of the management representation letter.

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Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Choice "b" is correct. The auditor's preliminary judgment about materiality is generally based on either

annualized interim financial statements or annual financial statements from a prior period.

Choice "a" is incorrect. The anticipated sample size for substantive tests is irrelevant in making a

preliminary judgment about materiality.

Choice "c" is incorrect. The results of the internal control questionnaire would be relevant for making a

preliminary assessment of control risk; however, these results are irrelevant for determining a preliminary

level of materiality.

Choice "d" is incorrect. The management representation letter is obtained at the end of the audit and would

not be available when preliminary assessments of materiality are made during planning.

Questions 7

Before applying substantive tests to the details of asset accounts at an interim date, an auditor should assess:

A. Control risk at a low level.

B. Inherent risk at a high level.

C. The difficulty in controlling the incremental audit risk.

D. Materiality for the accounts tested as insignificant.

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Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Choice "c" is correct. Before performing substantive tests at an interim date, the auditor must assess the difficulty in controlling the incremental audit risk from the interim date (on which the substantive procedures are performed) to the year-end date (on which an opinion is rendered). Choice "a" is incorrect. The auditor would not have to assess control risk at a low level in order to perform substantive tests at interim. It may simply be more efficient to perform a substantive audit. As long as the balances tested at interim are reasonably predictable with respect to amount, relative significance and composition, the account may be tested at interim. Choice "b" is incorrect. Generally, inherent risk should be low in order to test substantively at interim. Choice "d" is incorrect. If the materiality level for those accounts to be tested is insignificant, then the auditor probably would not perform any substantive testing, since it is unlikely that a material error exists in an insignificant balance.

Questions 8

Which of the following audit procedures is best for identifying unrecorded trade accounts payable?

A. Reviewing cash disbursements recorded subsequent to the balance sheet date to determine whether the related payables apply to the prior period.

B. Investigating payables recorded just prior to and just subsequent to the balance sheet date to determine whether they are supported by receiving reports.

C. Examining unusual relationships between monthly accounts payable balances and recorded cash payments.

D. Reconciling vendors' statements to the file of receiving reports to identify items received just prior to the balance sheet date.

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Correct Answer: A

Explanation: Choice "a" is correct. When performing a search for unrecorded payables, an auditor most likely would examine cash disbursements recorded after the balance sheet date to determine whether the payables related to the prior period have been included in the accounts payable trial balance. Choice "b" is incorrect. Investigating payables already recorded does not provide any evidence concerning unrecorded payables. Choice "c" is incorrect. While a high level of cash payments compared with a low level of payable balances may be indicative of unrecorded payables, comparing these amounts would not be the most effective method for identifying unrecorded payables. Choice "d" is incorrect. Comparing vendor statements to receiving reports is an audit step not involving the accounts payable balances; this step, therefore, provides no information about accounts payable.

Questions 9

Which of the following procedures most likely would not be an internal control procedure designed to reduce the risk of errors in the billing process?

A. Comparing control totals for shipping documents with corresponding totals for sales invoices.

B. Using computer programmed controls on the pricing and mathematical accuracy of sales invoices.

C. Matching shipping documents with approved sales orders before invoice preparation.

D. Reconciling the control totals for sales invoices with the accounts receivable subsidiary ledger.

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Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Choice "d" is correct. Reconciling the control totals for sales invoices with the accounts receivable

subsidiary ledger would probably not reduce the risk of errors in the billing process, since any errors in

billing would likely be included in both the sales and accounts receivable balances.

Choice "a" is incorrect. Comparing control totals for shipping documents with corresponding totals for sales

invoices is a procedure designed to determine that all shipments have been billed.

Choice "b" is incorrect. Using computer-programmed controls on sales invoices would reduce the risk of

errors in the billing process.

Choice "c" is incorrect. Matching shipping documents with approved sales orders before invoice

preparation provides assurance that the quantity and terms of the invoice are correct.

Questions 10

Which of the following might be considered the most expansionary set of fiscal policies?

A. Increase government purchases, increase in taxes.

B. Increase government purchases, decrease in taxes.

C. Decrease in taxes, increase in the money supply.

D. Increase in government purchases, increase in the money supply.

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Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Choice "b" is correct. Expansionary fiscal policy involves increasing government purchases and/or

decreasing taxes. Both increases in government spending and decreases in taxes cause the aggregate

demand curve to shift right and thus cause real GDP (output) to increase.

Choice "a" is incorrect. An increase in taxes is an example of contractionary fiscal policy.

Choice "c" is incorrect. An increase in the money supply is expansionary monetary policy (not fiscal policy).

Choice "d" is incorrect per above Explanation.

Questions 11

If a nation has superior conditions in which to grow coffee beans and firms are able to grow them at very low costs, which of the four major factors that Michael Porter has indicated impact the global competitive environment would allow this nation to fare better with respect to global competitive advantage?

A. Conditions of the factors of production.

B. Conditions of domestic demand.

C. Related and supporting industries.

D. Firm strategy, structure, and rivalry.

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Correct Answer: A

Explanation: Choice "a" is correct. If a nation has a strong set of factors of production (such as low cost, high quality raw material inputs), that are required in a given industry, it will fare better with regard to competitive advantage. Choice "b" is incorrect. Conditions of domestic demand relate to the nation's domestic demand for the product, which is directly related to the ability of the nation to fare better with regard to competitive advantage. Choice "c" is incorrect. The factor of related and supporting industries deals with whether there are suppliers of material inputs that exist within a nation or whether there are rival firms who are competitive in the international environment, both of which would increase the nation's competitive advantage. Choice "d" is incorrect. The factor of firm strategy, structure, and rivalry relates to the practices of a nation with respect to how the companies are managed and organized, long with the laws of the nation that regulate the formation of the companies, and how intense the rivalry is with respect to competing firms in the nation.

Questions 12

Which one of the following represents methods for converting accounts receivable to cash?

A. Trade discounts, collection agencies, and credit approval.

B. Factoring, pledging, and electronic funds transfers.

C. Cash discounts, collection agencies, and electronic funds transfers.

D. Trade discounts, cash discounts, and electronic funds transfers.

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Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Choice "c" is correct. The following are methods of converting accounts receivable (AR) into cash:

1.

Collection agencies - used to collect overdue AR.

2.

Factoring AR - selling AR to a factor for cash.

3.

Cash discounts - offering cash discounts to customers for paying AR quickly (or paying at all). For example: 2/10, net 30.

4.

Electronic fund transfers - a method of payment, which electronically transfers funds between banks.

Therefore, only choice "c" matches the above list.

Choice "a" is incorrect. Trade discounts offer discounts on future merchandise purchases offered to trade

customers. These discounts do not turn AR into cash.

Choice "b" is incorrect. Pledging AR as collateral on a loan does not convert AR into cash.

Choice "d" is incorrect, per choice for "a" above.

Questions 13

Tom and Joan Moore, both CPAs, filed a joint 1994 federal income tax return showing $70,000 in taxable income. During 1994, Tom's daughter Laura, age 16, resided with Tom. Laura had no income of her own and was Tom's dependent. Determine the amount of income or loss, if any that should be included on page one of the Moores’ 1994 Form 1040. In 1994, Joan received $3,500 as beneficiary of the death benefit, which was provided by her brother's employer. Joan's brother did not have a nonforfeitable right to receive the money while living.

A. $0

B. $500

C. $900

D. $1,000

E. $1,250

F. $1,300

G. $1,500

H. $2,000

I. $2,500

J. $3,000

K. $10,000

L. $25,000

M. $50,000

N. $55,000

O. $75,000

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Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

"A" is correct. $0. Life insurance proceeds received by reason of the death of the insured are not taxable

income to the recipient.

Exam Code: CPA-TEST
Exam Name: Certified Public Accountant Test: Auditing and Attestation, Business Environment and Concepts, Financial Accounting and Reporting, Regulation
Last Update: Jun 10, 2025
Questions: 1241

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