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Exam2pass > ISC > ISC Certifications > CSSLP > CSSLP Online Practice Questions and Answers

CSSLP Online Practice Questions and Answers

Questions 4

RCA (root cause analysis) is an iterative and reactive method that identifies the root cause of various incidents, and the actions required to prevent these incidents from reoccurring. RCA is classified in various categories. Choose appropriate categories and drop them in front of their respective functions.

Select and Place:

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Correct Answer:

The various categories of root cause analysis (RCA) are as follows: Safety-based RC A. It consists of plans from the health and safety areas. Production-based RCA. It integrates quality control paradigms. Process-based RCA. It integrates business processes. Failure-based RCA. It integrates failure analysis processes as employed in engineering and maintenance. Systemsbased RCA. It integrates the methods from risk and systems analysis.

Questions 5

Which of the following attacks causes software to fail and prevents the intended users from accessing software?

A. Enabling attack

B. Reconnaissance attack

C. Sabotage attack D. Disclosure attack

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Correct Answer: C

A sabotage attack is an attack that causes software to fail. It also prevents the intended users from accessing software. A sabotage attack is referred to as a denial of service (DoS) or compromise of availability. Answer: B is incorrect. The reconnaissance attack enables an attacker to collect information about software and operating environment. Answer: D is incorrect. The disclosure attack exposes the revealed data to an attacker. Answer: A is incorrect. The enabling attack delivers an easy path for other attacks.

Questions 6

Which of the following areas of information system, as separated by Information Assurance Framework, is a collection of local computing devices, regardless of physical location, that are interconnected via local area networks (LANs) and governed by a single security policy?

A. Local Computing Environments

B. Networks and Infrastructures

C. Supporting Infrastructures

D. Enclave Boundaries

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Correct Answer: D

The areas of information system, as separated by Information Assurance Framework, are as follows: Local Computing Environments: This area includes servers, client workstations, operating system, and applications. Enclave Boundaries: This area consists of collection of local computing devices, regardless of physical location, that are interconnected via local area networks (LANs) and governed by a single security policy. Networks and Infrastructures: This area provides the network connectivity between enclaves. It includes operational area networks (OANs), metropolitan area networks (MANs), and campus area networks (CANs). Supporting Infrastructures: This area provides security services for networks, client workstations, Web servers, operating systems, applications, files, and single-use infrastructure machines

Questions 7

Which of the following activities are performed by the 'Do' cycle component of PDCA (plan- do- check-act)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. It detects and responds to incidents properly.

B. It determines controls and their objectives.

C. It manages resources that are required to achieve a goal.

D. It performs security awareness training.

E. It operates the selected controls.

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Correct Answer: ACDE

The 'Do' cycle component performs the following activities: It operates the selected controls. It detects and responds to incidents properly. It performs security awareness training. It manages resources that are required to achieve a goal. Answer: B is incorrect. This activity is performed by the 'Plan' cycle component of PDCA.

Questions 8

Which of the following is a malicious exploit of a website, whereby unauthorized commands are transmitted from a user trusted by the website?

A. Cross-Site Scripting

B. Injection flaw

C. Side channel attack

D. Cross-Site Request Forgery

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Correct Answer: D

CSRF (Cross-Site Request Forgery) is a malicious exploit of a website, whereby unauthorized commands are transmitted from a user trusted by the website. It is also known as a one-click attack or session riding. CSRF occurs when a user is tricked by an attacker into activating a request in order to perform some unauthorized action. It increases data loss and malicious code execution. Answer: A is incorrect. Cross-site scripting (XSS) is a type of computer security vulnerability typically found in web applications which enable malicious attackers to inject client- side script into web pages viewed by other users. An exploited cross-site scripting vulnerability can be used by attackers to bypass access controls, such as the same origin policy. Cross-site scripting carried out on websites were roughly 80% of all security vulnerabilities documented by Symantec as of 2007. Their impact may range from a petty nuisance to a significant security risk, depending on the sensitivity of the data handled by the vulnerable site, and the nature of any security mitigations implemented by the site owner. Answer: C is incorrect. A side channel attack is based on information gained from the physical implementation of a cryptosystem, rather than brute force or theoretical weaknesses in the algorithms (compare cryptanalysis). For example, timing information, power consumption, electromagnetic leaks or even sound can provide an extra source of information which can be exploited to break the system. Many side- channel attacks require considerable technical knowledge of the internal operation of the system on which the cryptography is implemented. Answer: B is incorrect. Injection flaws are the vulnerabilities where a foreign agent illegally uses a sub-system. They are the vulnerability holes that can be used to attack a database of Web applications. It is the most common technique of attacking a database. Injection occurs when user-supplied data is sent to an interpreter as part of a command or query. The attacker's hostile data tricks the interpreter into executing involuntary commands or changing data. Injection flaws include XSS (HTML Injection) and SQL Injection.

Questions 9

The service-oriented modeling framework (SOMF) introduces five major life cycle modeling activities that drive a service evolution during design-time and run-time. Which of the following activities integrates SOA software assets and establishes SOA logical environment dependencies?

A. Service-oriented discovery and analysis modeling

B. Service-oriented business integration modeling

C. Service-oriented logical architecture modeling

D. Service-oriented logical design modeling

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Correct Answer: C

The service-oriented logical architecture modeling integrates SOA software assets and establishes SOA logical environment dependencies. It also offers foster service reuse, loose coupling and consolidation. Answer: A is incorrect. The service-oriented discovery and analysis modeling discovers and analyzes services for granularity, reusability, interoperability, loose- coupling, and identifies consolidation opportunities. Answer: B is incorrect. The service-oriented business integration modeling identifies service integration and alignment opportunities with business domains' processes. Answer: D is incorrect. The service-oriented logical design modeling establishes service relationships and message exchange paths.

Questions 10

In which of the following SDLC phases is the system's security features configured and enabled, the system is tested and installed or fielded, and the system is authorized for processing?

A. Development/Acquisition Phase

B. Operation/Maintenance Phase

C. Implementation Phase

D. Initiation Phase

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Correct Answer: C

It is the implementation phase, in which the system's security features are configured and enabled, the system is tested and installed or fielded, and the system is authorized for processing. A design review and systems test should be performed prior to placing the system into operation to ensure that it meets security specifications. Answer: B is incorrect. In Operation/Maintenance Phase, the system performs its work. The system is almost always being continuously modified by the addition of hardware and software and by numerous other events. Answer: D is incorrect. In the initiation phase, the need for a system is expressed and the purpose of the system is documented. Answer: A is incorrect. In Development/Acquisition Phase, the system is designed, purchased, programmed, developed, or otherwise constructed.

Questions 11

John works as a systems engineer for BlueWell Inc. He has modified the software, and wants to retest the application to ensure that bugs have been fixed or not. Which of the following tests should John use to accomplish the task?

A. Reliability test

B. Functional test

C. Performance test

D. Regression test

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Correct Answer: D

John should use the regression tests to retest the application to guarantee that bugs have been fixed. This test will help him to check that the earlier working functions have not failed as a result of the changes, and newly added features have not created problems with the previous versions. The various types of internal tests performed on builds are as follows: Regression tests: It is also known as the verification testing. These tests are developed to confirm that capabilities in earlier builds continue to work correctly in the subsequent builds. Functional test: These tests emphasizes on verifying that the build meets its functional and data requirements and correctly generates each expected display and report. Performance tests: These tests are used to identify the performance thresholds of each build. Reliability tests: These tests are used to identify the reliability thresholds of each build.

Questions 12

Which of the following refers to the ability to ensure that the data is not modified or tampered with?

A. Integrity

B. Availability

C. Non-repudiation

D. Confidentiality

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Correct Answer: A

Integrity refers to the ability to ensure that the data is not modified or tampered with. Integrity means that data cannot be modified without authorization. Integrity is violated when an employee accidentally or with malicious intent deletes important data files, when a computer virus infects a computer, when an employee is able to modify his own salary in a payroll database, when an unauthorized user vandalizes a Web site, when someone is able to cast a very large number of votes in an online poll, and so on. Answer: D is incorrect. Confidentiality is the property of preventing disclosure of information to unauthorized individuals or systems. Breaches of confidentiality take many forms. Permitting someone to look over your shoulder at your computer screen while you have confidential data displayed on it could be a breach of confidentiality. If a laptop computer containing sensitive information about a company's employees is stolen or sold, it could result in a breach of confidentiality. Answer: B is incorrect. Availability means that data must be available whenever it is needed. Answer: C is incorrect. Non-repudiation is the concept of ensuring that a party in a dispute cannot refuse to acknowledge, or refute the validity of a statement or contract. As a service, it provides proof of the integrity and origin of data. Although this concept can be applied to any transmission, including television and radio, by far the most common application is in the verification and trust of signatures.

Questions 13

Which of the following components of configuration management involves periodic checks to determine the consistency and completeness of accounting information and to verify that all configuration management policies are being followed?

A. Configuration Identification

B. Configuration Auditing

C. Configuration Control

D. Configuration Status Accounting

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Correct Answer: B

Configuration auditing is a component of configuration management, which involves periodic checks to establish the consistency and completeness of accounting information and to confirm that all configuration management policies are being followed. Configuration audits are broken into functional and physical configuration audits. They occur either at delivery or at the moment of effecting the change. A functional configuration audit ensures that functional and performance attributes of a configuration item are achieved, while a physical configuration audit ensures that a configuration item is installed in accordance with the requirements of its detailed design documentation. Answer: D is incorrect. The configuration status accounting procedure is the ability to record and report on the configuration baselines associated with each configuration item at any moment of time. It supports the functional and physical attributes of software at various points in time, and performs systematic control of accounting to the identified attributes for the purpose of maintaining software integrity and traceability throughout the software development life cycle. Answer: C is incorrect. Configuration control is a procedure of the Configuration management. Configuration control is a set of processes and approval stages required to change a configuration item's attributes and to re-baseline them. It supports the change of the functional and physical attributes of software at various points in time, and performs systematic control of changes to the identified attributes. Answer: A is incorrect. Configuration identification is the process of identifying the attributes that define every aspect of a configuration item. A configuration item is a product (hardware and/or software) that has an end-user purpose. These attributes are recorded in configuration documentation and baselined. Baselining an attribute forces formal configuration change control processes to be effected in the event that these attributes are changed.

Exam Code: CSSLP
Exam Name: Certified Secure Software Lifecycle Professional (CSSLP)
Last Update: Jun 12, 2025
Questions: 354

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