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Exam2pass > CompTIA > CompTIA Certifications > CV0-004 > CV0-004 Online Practice Questions and Answers

CV0-004 Online Practice Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following is used to deliver code quickly and efficiently across the development, test, and production environments?

A. Snapshot

B. Container image

C. Serverless function

D. VM template

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Correct Answer: B

A container image is used to deliver code quickly and efficiently across the development, test, and production environments. Container images are lightweight, standalone, executable software packages that include everything needed to run a piece of software, including the code, runtime, system tools, libraries, and settings. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide (V0-004) - Chapter on Cloud Deployment Methods

Questions 5

A customer relationship management application, which is hosted in a public cloud laaS network, is vulnerable to a remote command execution vulnerability.

Which of the following is the best solution for the security engineer to implement to prevent the application from being exploited by basic attacks?

A. IPS

B. ACL

C. DLP

D. WAF

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Correct Answer: D

A Web Application Firewall (WAF) is the best solution to implement for a public cloud IaaS hosted customer relationship management application vulnerable to remote command execution attacks. WAFs are designed to monitor, filter, and block malicious HTTP/S traffic to and from a web application to protect against various application layer attacks, including remote command execution. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide (V0-004) - Chapter on Security in the Cloud

Questions 6

A cloud engineer wants to implement a monitoring solution to detect cryptojacking and other cryptomining malware on cloud instances. Which of the following metrics would most likely be used to identify the activity?

A. Disk I/O

B. Network packets

C. Average memory utilization

D. Percent of CPU utilization

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Correct Answer: D

To detect cryptojacking and other cryptomining malware on cloud instances, monitoring the percent of CPU utilization is most effective. Cryptomining malware typically consumes a significant amount of CPU resources for mining operations, leading to unusually high CPU usage. Monitoring and analyzing CPU utilization metrics can help identify instances of cryptojacking by highlighting abnormal levels of resource consumption. References: Understanding management and technical operations in cloud environments, as outlined in the CompTIA Cloud+ objectives, includes the use of monitoring solutions to detect and respond to security threats like cryptomining malware, ensuring the integrity and performance of cloud resources.

Questions 7

An engineer made a change to an application and needs to select a deployment strategy that meets the following requirements:

1.

Is simple and fast

2.

Can be performed on two Identical platforms

Which of the following strategies should the engineer use?

A. Blue-green

B. Canary

C. Rolling

D. in-place

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Correct Answer: A

The blue-green deployment strategy is ideal for scenarios where simplicity and speed are crucial. It involves two identical production environments: one (blue) hosts the current application version, while the other (green) is used to deploy the new version. Once testing is completed on the green environment and it's ready to go live, traffic is switched from blue to green, ensuring a quick and efficient rollout with minimal downtime. This method allows for immediate rollback if issues arise, by simply redirecting the traffic back to the blue environment. References: CompTIA Cloud+ material emphasizes the importance of understanding various cloud deployment strategies, including blue-green, and their application in real-world scenarios to ensure efficient and reliable software deployment in cloud environments.

Questions 8

A group of cloud administrators frequently uses the same deployment template to recreate a cloud-based development environment. The administrators are unable to go back and review the history of changes they have made to the template.

Which of the following cloud resource deployment concepts should the administrator start using?

A. Drift detection

B. Repeatability

C. Documentation

D. Versioning

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Correct Answer: D

Versioning is a concept that allows cloud administrators to keep track of the history of changes made to deployment templates or any other configuration file. By using version control systems, they can review previous versions, roll back to

earlier configurations if necessary, and understand the evolution of the deployment template over time.

References: CompTIA Cloud+ Guide to Cloud Computing (ISBN: 978-1-64274-282-2)

Questions 9

A cloud engineer needs to deploy a new version of a web application to 100 servers. In the past, new version deployments have caused outages.

Which of the following deployment types should the cloud engineer implement to prevent the outages from happening this time?

A. Rolling

B. Blue-green

C. Canary

D. Round-robin

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Correct Answer: C

A canary deployment is a pattern that reduces the risk of introducing a new software version in production by slowly rolling out the change to a small subset of users before rolling it out to the entire infrastructure. It's an effective strategy to

prevent outages since it allows for monitoring and quick rollback if issues arise without affecting all users.

References: Canary releases are part of deployment strategies that can help mitigate the risk of outages during updates, a concept included in the CompTIA Cloud+ curriculum.

Questions 10

A cloud administrator deploys new VMs in a cluster and discovers they are getting IP addresses in the range of 169.254.0.0/16. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A. The scope has been exhausted.

B. The network is overlapping.

C. The VLAN is missing.

D. The NAT is Improperly configured.

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Correct Answer: A

IP addresses in the range of 169.254.0.0/16 are Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) addresses, which devices assign themselves when they are configured to obtain an IP automatically but are unable to reach a DHCP server to get one. The most likely cause for VMs in a cluster to receive APIPA addresses is the exhaustion of the DHCP scope, meaning there are no more available IP addresses in the DHCP range to be assigned.

Questions 11

A cloud engineer needs to migrate an application from on premises to a public cloud. Due to timing constraints, the application cannot be changed prior to migration.

Which of the following migration strategies is best approach for this use case?

A. Retire

B. Rearchitect

C. Refactor

D. Rehost

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Correct Answer: D

Rehosting, often referred to as "lift-and-shift," is the process of migrating an application or workload to the cloud without modifying it. This approach is suitable when there are timing constraints that prevent making changes to the application prior to migration. Rehosting can be the quickest migration strategy since it involves moving the existing applications to the cloud with minimal changes. References: CompTIA Cloud+ resources and cloud migration strategies

Questions 12

A company is concerned it will run out of VLANs on its private cloud platform in the next couple months, and the product currently offered to customers requires the company to allocate three dedicated, segmented tiers.

Which of the following can the company implement to continue adding new customers and to maintain the required level of isolation from other tenants?

A. GRE

B. SR-IOV

C. VXLAN

D. IPSec

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Correct Answer: C

One possible solution for the company to continue adding new customers and to maintain the required level of isolation from other tenants is to implement VXLAN. VXLAN is a network virtualization technology that can extend VLAN by adding a 24-bit segment ID, which allows up to 16 million unique virtual segments. VXLAN can encapsulate layer 2 Ethernet frames within layer 3 IP packets, and tunnel them across the underlying network. VXLAN can provide logical isolation and security for different tenants, as well as scalability and flexibility for large cloud computing environments1.

Questions 13

A systems administrator is implementing a new version of a company's primary human- resources application. An upgrade will be performed on the production server, as there is no development environment. The administrator needs to have a plan in case something goes wrong with the upgrade.

Which of the following will work best to ensure a quick rollback in case an issue arises?

A. An application-level backup

B. A production snapshot

C. A full backup

D. A differential backup

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Correct Answer: B

A production snapshot is a point-in-time copy of the state and data of a production server or instance. It can be used to restore the server or instance to the exact state it was in when the snapshot was taken, in case of a failure, error, or corruption. A production snapshot can help to ensure a quick rollback in case an issue arises during an application upgrade, as it can revert the changes made by the upgrade and restore the previous version of the application. A production snapshot can also preserve the configuration and settings of the server or instance, as well as the application data and dependencies. A production snapshot is different from a backup, which is a copy of the data only, and may not include the state or configuration of the server or instance. References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Study Guide, Chapter 2: Deploying a Cloud Environment, page 75- 76; Snapshots vs Backups: Key Differences and Similarities.

Exam Code: CV0-004
Exam Name: CompTIA Cloud+
Last Update: Jun 28, 2025
Questions: 285

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