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Exam2pass > HP > HP Certifications > HPE7-A01 > HPE7-A01 Online Practice Questions and Answers

HPE7-A01 Online Practice Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Your customer is having issues with Wi-Fi 6 clients staying connected to poor-performing APs when a higher throughput APs are closer. Which technology should you implement?

A. Clearpass

B. ClientMatch

C. Airmatch

D. ARM

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Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Wi-Fi 6 is an industry certification for products that support the new wireless standard 802.11ax, also known as "high-efficiency wireless". Wi-Fi 6 offers increased capacities, improved resource utilization and higher throughput speeds than previous standards.

Option B: ClientMatch This is because option B shows how to use ClientMatch to optimize the wireless performance of Wi-Fi 6 clients on a UniFi network. ClientMatch is a feature that uses machine learning to analyze the traffic patterns of each client and assign them to the best available AP based on their location, device type, and network conditions2. Therefore, option B is the best technology to implement for your customer's issue.

1: https://help.ui.com/hc/en-us/articles/221029967-UniFi-Network-Optimizing-Wireless- Connectivity 2: https://help.ui.com/hc/en-us/articles/360012947634-UniFi-Network- Optimizing-Wireless-Speeds

Questions 5

When setting up an Aruba CX VSX pair, which information does the Inter-Switch Link Protocol configuration use in the configuration created?

A. QSVI

B. MAC tables

C. UDLD

D. RPVST+

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Correct Answer: B

Explanation: The information that the Inter-Switch Link Protocol configuration uses in the configuration created is B. MAC tables. The Inter-Switch Link Protocol (ISL) is a protocol that enables the synchronization of data and state information between two VSX peer switches. The ISL uses a version control mechanism and provides backward compatibility regarding VSX synchronization capabilities. The ISL can span long distances (transceiver dependent) and supports different speeds, such as 10G, 25G, 40G, or 100G1. One of the data components that the ISL synchronizes is the MAC table, which is a database that stores the MAC addresses of the devices connected to the switch and the corresponding ports or VLANs. The ISL ensures that both VSX peers have the same MAC table entries and can forward traffic to the correct destination2. The ISL also synchronizes other data components, such as ARP table, LACP states for VSX LAGs, and MSTP states2.

Questions 6

What is used to retrieve data stored in a Management Information Base (MIS)?

A. SNMPv3

B. DSCP

C. TLV

D. CDP

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Correct Answer: A

Explanation: The correct answer is A. SNMPv3.

SNMPv3 is a protocol that is used to retrieve data stored in a Management Information Base (MIB), which is a database of managed objects in a network. SNMPv3 provides security and access control features that are not available in earlier

versions of SNMP. SNMPv3 can also use encryption to protect the data from unauthorized access or modification.

According to the Aruba Certified Professional ?Campus Access document1, one of the skills that this certification validates is:

Implement and Analyze the output from common network monitoring tools The document also mentions that the candidate should have a distinguished understanding of different protocols across vendors, which implies that they should be

familiar with SNMPv3 and how it can be used to access MIB data.

Questions 7

Describe the difference between Class of Service (CoS) and Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP).

A. CoS has much finer granularity than DSCP

B. CoS is only contained in VLAN Tag fields DSCP is in the IP Header and preserved throughout the IP packet flow

C. They are similar and can be used interchangeably.

D. CoS is only used to determine CLASS of traffic DSCP is only used to differentiate between different Classes.

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Correct Answer: B

Explanation: CoS and DSCP are both methods of marking packets for quality of service (QoS) purposes. QoS is a mechanism that allows network devices to prioritize and differentiate traffic based on certain criteria, such as application type,

source, destination, etc. CoS stands for Class of Service and is a 3-bit field in the 802.1Q VLAN tag header. CoS can only be used on Ethernet frames that have a VLAN tag, and it can only be preserved within a single VLAN domain. DSCP

stands for Differentiated Services Code Point and is a 6-bit field in the IP header. DSCP can be used on any IP packet, regardless of the underlying layer 2 technology, and it can be preserved throughout the IP packet flow, unless it is

modified by intermediate devices. References:

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/qos/configuration/15-mt/qos-15-mt- book/qos-overview.html https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan- switching/8021q/17056-741-4.html https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/

quality-of- service-qos/qos-packet-marking/10103-dscpvalues.html

Questions 8

Your manufacturing client is deploying two hundred wireless IP cameras and fifty headless scanners in their warehouse. These new devices do not support 802.1X authentication.

How can HPE Aruba enhance security for these new IP cameras in this environment?

A. Use MPSK Local to automatically provide unique pre-shared Keys for devices.

B. Aruba ClearPass performs the 802.1X authentication and installs a certificate.

C. MPSK provides for each device in the WLAN to have its own unique pre-shared Key.

D. MPSK Local will allow the cameras to share a rey and the scanners to share a different

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Correct Answer: C

The best option to enhance security for the new IP cameras and scanners in this environment is C. MPSK provides for each device in the WLAN to have its own unique pre- shared key.

MPSK stands for Multi Pre-Shared Key, and it is a feature that allows different devices to connect to the same SSID with different pre-shared keys. This improves the security and scalability of the network, as each device can have its own key

and role without requiring 802.1X authentication or an external policy engine. MPSK can be configured either locally on the AP or centrally on Aruba Central12.

The other options are incorrect because:

A. MPSK Local is a feature that allows the user to configure 24 PSKs per SSID locally on the device. These local PSKs would serve as an extension of the base MPSK functionality. However, MPSK Local is not suitable for this scenario, as it can only support up to 24 devices per SSID, while the client has 250 devices1. B. Aruba ClearPass is a network access control solution that can perform 802.1X authentication and install certificates for devices. However, this option is not feasible for this scenario, as the new IP cameras and scanners do not support 802.1X authentication3.

D. MPSK Local will not allow the cameras to share a key and the scanners to share a different key. MPSK Local will assign a different key to each device, regardless of their type. Moreover, MPSK Local can only support up to 24 devices per SSID, while the client has 250 devices1.

Questions 9

What are the requirements to ensure that WMM is working effectively'? (Select two)

A. The APs and the controller are Wi-Fi CERTIFIED for WMM which is enabled

B. All APs need to be from the AP-5xx series and AP-6xx series which are Wi-Fi CERTIFIED 6.

C. The Client must be Wi-Fi CERTIFIED for WMM and configured for WMM marking.

D. The Aruba AOS10 APs installed have to be converted to controlled mode

E. The AP needs to be connected via a tagged VLAN to the wired port

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Correct Answer: AC

Explanation: These are the correct requirements to ensure that WMM (Wi-Fi Multimedia) is working effectively. WMM is a standard that provides quality of service (QoS) for wireless networks by prioritizing traffic into four categories: voice, video, best effort, and background. To use WMM, both the APs and the controller must be Wi-Fi CERTIFIED for WMM, which means they have passed interoperability tests and comply with the standard. WMM must also be enabled on the APs and the controller, which is usually the default setting. The client device must also be Wi-Fi CERTIFIED for WMM and configured for WMM marking, which means it can tag its traffic with the appropriate priority level based on the application type. The other options are incorrect because they are either not related to WMM or not required for WMM to work. References: https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/ArubaOS_86_Web_Help/Content/arubaos- solutions/wlan-qos/wmm.htm https://www.wi-fi.org/discover-wi-fi/wi-fi-certified-wmm

Questions 10

You must ensure the HPEAruba network you are configuring for a client is capable of plug- and-play provisioning of access points. What enables this capability?

A. UCC Service

B. LLDP-MED

C. SRTP

D. CSMA

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Correct Answer: A

Explanation: The capability that enables plug-and-play provisioning of access points in an HPE Aruba network is the UCC Service. The UCC Service is a cloud-based service that allows the access points to automatically discover and connect

to the Aruba Central management platform without any manual intervention. The UCC Service also provides zero-touch configuration, firmware updates, and monitoring for the access points1.

The other options are incorrect because:

B. LLDP-MED: LLDP-MED is a protocol that enhances the interoperability between network devices and IP phones. It does not enable plug-and-play provisioning of access points2.

C. SRTP: SRTP is a protocol that provides encryption and authentication for voice and video traffic. It does not enable plug-and-play provisioning of access points3. D. CSMA: CSMA is a protocol that regulates how devices share a common medium, such as a wireless channel. It does not enable plug-and-play provisioning of access points.

Questions 11

With the Aruba CX switch configuration, what is the Active Gateway feature that is used for and is unique to VSX configuration?

A. Sixteen different VMACs are supported total as shared.

B. Active Gateway can once MSTP instances are created for VLAN load sharing.

C. Sixteen different VMACS are supported for each IPV4 and IPV6 stack simultaneously

D. copied over the ISL link for an optimized path.

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Correct Answer: C

Explanation: The active gateway feature is used to provide active-active layer 3 default gateway for hosts on the same subnet. It allows the switch to convert multicast streams into unicast streams over the wireless link, which improves the

quality and reliability of streaming video, while preserving the bandwidth available to the non-video clients. The active gateway feature is unique to VSX configuration because it eliminates the need for VRRP and avoids traffic being pushed

over the ISL link, which can cause latency in the network12.

The correct answer to the question is C. Sixteen different VMACs are supported for each IPv4 and IPv6 stack simultaneously. This means that you can have a maximum of eight VMACs for IPv4, and a maximum of eight VMACs for IPv6, on a

VSX pair. Only 15 VMACs are supported on 6400 switch series2.

The other options are incorrect because:

A. Sixteen different VMACs are not supported total as shared. They are supported for each IPv4 and IPv6 stack separately.

B. Active gateway can be used without MSTP instances. MSTP is a protocol that allows multiple spanning tree instances to coexist on the same switch, but it does not affect how active gateway works.

D. Active gateway does not copy traffic over the ISL link for an optimized path. It avoids using the ISL link for routed traffic and uses the local switch interface MAC instead of the virtual MAC address (VMAC) for source address1.

Questions 12

Which statements regarding Aruba NAE agents are true? (Select two ) A. A single NAE script can be used by multiple NAE agents

B. NAE agents are active at all times

C. NAE agents will never consume more than 10% of switch processor resources

D. NAE scripts must be reviewed and signed by Aruba before being used

E. A single NAE agent can be used by multiple NAE scripts.

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Correct Answer: AC

Explanation: The statements that are true regarding Aruba NAE agents are A and C. A. A single NAE script can be used by multiple NAE agents. This means that you can create different instances of the same script with different parameters or settings. For example, you can use the same script to monitor different VLANs or interfaces on the switch1.

C. NAE agents will never consume more than 10% of switch processor resources. This is a built-in safeguard that prevents the agents from affecting the switch performance or stability. If an agent exceeds the 10% limit, it will be automatically

disabled and an alert will be generated2.

The other options are incorrect because:

B. NAE agents are not active at all times. They can be enabled or disabled by the user, either manually or based on a schedule. They can also be disabled automatically if they encounter an error or exceed the resource limit1. D. NAE scripts

do not need to be reviewed and signed by Aruba before being used. You can create your own custom scripts using Python and upload them to the switch or Aruba Central. You can also use the scripts provided by Aruba or other sources, as

long as they are compatible with the switch firmware version1. E. A single NAE agent cannot be used by multiple NAE scripts. An agent is an instance of a script that runs on the switch. Each agent can only run one script at a time1.

Questions 13

A customer has a large number of food-producing machines

All machines are connected via Aruba CX6200 switches in VLANs 100.110. and 120 Several external technicians are maintaining this special equipment

What are the correct commands to ensure that no rogue DHCP server will impact the network?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

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Correct Answer: B

Explanation: configures DHCP snooping on the switch and enables it for VLANs 100, 110, and 120. It also specifies the IP address of the authorized DHCP server and sets the ports connected to the server as trusted. This prevents any unauthorized DHCP server from providing invalid configuration data to the clients on those VLANs. Option B also enables DHCP option-82, which adds information about the switch port and VLAN to the DHCP packets, allowing for more granular control and logging of DHCP transactions.

Exam Code: HPE7-A01
Exam Name: Aruba Certified Campus Access Professional
Last Update: Jun 18, 2026
Questions: 155

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