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Exam2pass > Test Prep > Test Prep Certifications > MCQS > MCQS Online Practice Questions and Answers

MCQS Online Practice Questions and Answers

Questions 4

A 70-year-old man with prostatic cancer has had severe acute back pain waking him up at night for 6wks. What is appropriate investigation?

A. DEXA scan

B. Serum ALP concentration

C. Serum calcium concentration

D. MRI spine

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Correct Answer: A

Radionuclide bone scan. MRI is good for soft tissue but not for bone. If it was radiculopathy, spina compression or prolapsed disc creating pressure on nerve MRI would be fine but not for bony metastasis. Her choice is radionuclide bone scan.

Questions 5

A 14-year-old girl presents with primary amenorrhea and a short stature.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Down's syndrome

B. Fragile X syndrome

C. Turner's syndrome

D. Klinefelter's syndrome

E. Normal finding

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Correct Answer: C

Down's syndrome and Fragile x syndrome don't have primary amenorrhea. Klinefelter's patients are tall males. So the likely diagnosis is Turner's syndrome.

Questions 6

A 54-year-old patient wakes up with right sided weakness. His current medication is bendroflumethiazide

for

BP=160/90mmHg. CT shows left cerebral infarct.

What is the most appropriate treatment?

A. Alteplase

B. Aspirin

C. Simvastatin

D. Dipyridamole

E. Clopidogrel

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Correct Answer: A

Questions 7

A 28-weeks pregnant woman presents with uterine bleeding after sexual intercourse. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?

A. Placental abruption

B. Missed abortion

C. Placental previa

D. Ectropion

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Correct Answer: D

Post coital bleeding can be either placenta previa or cervical ectropion. But as ectropion pregnancy so it is the option here.

Questions 8

A 6-year-old girl presents with her 3rd episode of pallor and mildly icteric sclera associated with symptoms of mild upper RTI. On examination, she has an easily tipped spleen.

Which one of following investigations is most likely to confirm her diagnosis?

A. Eosin-5-maleimide (E5M) staining test

B. Hb electrophoresis

C. Howell-jolly bodies in a RBC smear

D. Reticulocyte count

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Correct Answer: B

Questions 9

A 45-year-old man presents to the ED after acute onset of lower back pain that began after he tried to lift an engine block at his job. He says he feels like lightning bolts are shooting down his legs and he is unable to move. Physical exam reveals a positive straight leg raise test and positive anal wink.

What is the most appropriate next diagnostic step?

A. ESR

B. MRI of the spine

C. X-ray of the cervical spine

D. CBC

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Correct Answer: B

A patient who presents with acute onset of back pain and is under the age of 50 should have an MRI to rule out spinal cord compression due to a slipped disc or lumbar disc herniation. If asked for the most appropriate next step in management, answer anti-inflammatory agents. The most common sites of lumbar disc herniation are L4-L5 and L5-S1.

Questions 10

10 years old boy presented to clinic with 3-weeks history of limping that worsen in the morning, this suggests which of the following:

A. Legg–Calvé–Perthes disease (LCPD)

B. Tumor

C. Septic arthritis

D. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

E. RA

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Correct Answer: D

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE or skiffy, slipped upper femoral epiphysis, SUFE or souffy) is a medical term referring to a fracture through the growth plate (physis), which results in slippage of the overlying end of the femur (epiphysis). Normally, the head of the femur, called the capital, should sit squarely on the femoral neck. Abnormal movement along the growth plate results in the slip. The femoral epiphysis remains in the acetabulum (hip socket), while the metaphysis (end of the femur) move in an anterior direction with external rotation. SCFE is the most common hip disorder in adolescence. SCFEs usually cause groin pain on the affected side, but sometimes cause knee or thigh pain. One in five cases involve both hips, resulting in pain on both sides of the body. SCFEs often occur in obese adolescent males, especially young Black males, although it also affects females. Symptoms include the gradual, progressive onset of thigh or knee pain with a painful limp. Hip motion will be limited, particularly internal rotation.

Questions 11

The best test for diagnosis of adenomyosis:

A. Ultrasound

B. Laproscopy

C. Hystroscopy

D. MRI

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Correct Answer: D

Adenomyosis is a non-cancerous condition of the uterus that can mimic many of the signs and symptoms of fibroids. This condition results from the lining cells of the uterus growing directly into the muscle wall of the uterus. When the lining cells of the uterus bleed at the time of the menstrual period, these misplaced cells in the muscle bleed as well. And bleeding directly into the muscle causes pain. As the blood accumulates, the surrounding muscle swells and forms fibrous tissue in response to the irritation. This swollen area within the uterine muscle wall, called an adenomyoma, feels very much like a fibroid on examination and is often confused with a fibroid on a sonogram. Adenomyosis may be mild and cause no symptoms at all, or, in more severe forms, it may lead to heavy bleeding and severe cramping during menstrual periods. Adenomyosis is present in about 10 percent of women and, therefore, is less common than fibroids. However, now that women with adenomyosis can be diagnosed by MRI, careful examination of the cellular changes of the uterus suggests that there are many reasons why adenomyosis could cause infertility. These new studies will also be very important in helping scientists figure out what type of treatments might cure adenomyosis, or better yet, prevent it from developing at all.

Questions 12

Patient with normal pressure hydrocephalus. CT brain picture distended ventricles.

What is initial treatment?

A. Lumber punctures and drains fluid

B. Shunt

C. Diuretics

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Correct Answer: B

Management Surgery Surgical CSF shunting remains the main treatment modality for NPH (NORMAL PRESSURE HYDROCEPHALUS)). Prior to embarking upon surgical therapy, knowing which patients may benefit from surgery is necessary. Detailed testing is performed before and after CSF drainage (e.g.,

baseline neuropsychological evaluation, timed walking test, large-volume lumbar puncture, external lumbar drainage, CSF infusion testing).

Questions 13

65 years old male with hypertension, congestive heart failure and peptic ulcer disease came to your office for his regular blood pressure check. Although his blood pressure is now under control, he complains of an inability to maintain an erection. He currently is taking propranolol, verapamil, hydrochlorothiazide, and r pressure is 125/76 mmHg. His pulse is 56 and regular. The rest of the cardiovascular examination and the rest of the physical examination are normal.

Which of the following generally considered the MOST common cause of sexual dysfunction?

A. Panic disorder

B. Major depressive disorder

C. Generalized anxiety disorder

D. Dysthymic disorder

E. pharmacological agents

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Correct Answer: E

The most common cause of sexual dysfunction is psychological disease. Dysthymic disorder is one of mood disorders, has similar symptoms of major depressive disorder, but less in severity, present at least for 2 years. Symptoms free period are possible but may not exceed 2 months in 2 years time frame.

Exam Code: MCQS
Exam Name: Multiple-choice questions for general practitioner (GP) Doctor
Last Update: Jul 07, 2026
Questions: 249

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