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Exam2pass > USMLE > USMLE Certifications > USMLE-STEP-3 > USMLE-STEP-3 Online Practice Questions and Answers

USMLE-STEP-3 Online Practice Questions and Answers

Questions 4

A 64-year-old male has been suffering from lower back pain for over 10 years. You have been following him for this period. You have prescribed stretching exercises and, occasionally, an anti-inflammatory medication to alleviate his pain. Although he has had no neurologic deficits in the past, today he has shown up in your office unexpectedly, complaining of bilateral lower back pain with numbness and tingling over the dorsal aspect of both feet. His symptoms have become progressively worse over the past 2 weeks and he is now unable to stand for more than 5 minutes without developing extreme pain and numbness. His symptoms are much improved by sitting down or kneeling over a chair. Climbing stairs seems to be tolerated well, but walking greatly exacerbates the pain. He denies bladder or bowel incontinence or retention, point tenderness or anesthesia in the lower back along the spinal cord or in the saddle area.

What is the likely diagnosis?

A. spondyloathropathy of the sacroiliac joint

B. age-related early degenerative joint disease (DJD) of the hips

C. spinal stenosis of the lumbosacral area

D. muscle spasm of the lower back

E. cauda equina syndrom

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Correct Answer: C Section: (none)

Explanation: Although all of the given diagnoses could produce similar symptoms, there are distinct findings which suggest a diagnosis of spinal stenosis. Spinal stenosis is a degenerative disorder of the spine which normally presents after the age of 50. Neurologic symptoms, including dysesthesias and paraesthesias, and pain are often bilateral and not localized, since it commonly affects multiple vertebrae. The symptoms are improved with flexion of the spine (sitting or climbing stairs) and worsened by straightening the spine (standing). There is no localized pain in the sacrum and no bowel or bladder incontinence, so a diagnosis of cauda equina syndrome or spondyloarthopathy is less likely. Muscle spasms and early DJD should not produce such neurologic findings. The most sensitive and specific imaging study in the diagnosis of spinal stenosis, among those given above, is an MRI of the spine at the affected area. Although x-rays of the spine have been frequently used in the past in the evaluation of lower back pain, they have been shown to be of limited value in diagnosing pathology. Bone scans may detect malignancy or infection before radiography does, but are of no value in spinal stenosis. Indium scans would be useful in occult inflammatory pathology and nerve conduction studies would suggest a neuropathic deficit, but would not help in localizing the defect.

Questions 5

A 49-year-old male presents with crushing substernal pain and rules out for a myocardial infarction. He is noted to have subcutaneous emphysema of the chest and neck and precordial crackles that correlate to his heartbeat but not his respirations.

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. spontaneous pneumothorax

B. esophageal perforation

C. pericarditis

D. pneumopericardium

E. pulmonary embolus

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Correct Answer: B Section: (none)

Explanation:

"Hamman's crunch" is precordial crackles heard on auscultation that correlate with heart sounds in the setting of mediastinal emphysema and is suggestive of esophageal perforation. When present along with subcutaneous emphysema of the chest and neck, pneumomediastinum from an esophageal perforation is the most likely diagnosis. The most common cause of esophageal perforation is iatrogenic, but it may be spontaneous (Boerhaave's syndrome) or secondary to a malignancy or stricture. Diagnosis is often made after clinical suspicion by endoscopy or a swallow study with water-soluble contrast. If diagnosed early (within 24 hours), a primary repair is the first approach to treatment. Closure is dependent on the amount of infected or necrotic tissue, tension on the anastomosis, etiology of the perforation, and the ability to adequately drain the contaminated areas. Late perforations may be complicated in their management, requiring several procedures or diversion to provide for adequate healing.

Questions 6

A 72-year-old woman undergoes a sigmoid colectomy for diverticulitis. Postoperatively, she develops a wound infection for which she is transferred to the ICU for 2 days because of hypotension. Which of the following would have had the most effect on reducing her risk of developing complications?

A. preoperative treatment of her concomitant urinary tract infection

B. nurses changing gloves in between their patient assessments so they don't have to wash their hands as often

C. using a preoperative antibiotic specific for E. coli, the most common intestinal flora

D. giving preoperative antibiotics immediatel after the skin incision

E. treatment of the infected wound with an antibiotic only

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Correct Answer: A Section: (none)

Explanation: Wound infection is a complication of surgery that can lead to a great deal of morbidity and longer hospital stay. Prevention of wound infection includes perioperative antibiotics, which should be at their peak tissue concentration at the time of skin incision. This means they should be given at least 30 minutes prior to incision. Patients who have other infections, such as urinary tract infections, are at increased risk for wound infection. Bowel surgery exposes the wound to the normal intestinal flora, the most common being Bacteroides. Washing hands is an essential part of preventing spread of infectious pathogens between patients. Using gloves is not a substitute for good hand hygiene. Once a wound is infected, it must be opened and drained. Antibiotic therapy alone is not adequate.

Questions 7

On a Monday morning you see a 12-year-old otherwise healthy boy in the emergency department. The parents brought the boy in because they noticed that he started to have an abnormal gait in the past few days. He seems to be shuffling his feet. The boy complains that his legs feel heavy and are tingling. He relates that his arms feel fine. His past history is significant for attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) for which he is taking methylphenidate. He denies trauma or taking any other medicines or drugs. On examination, he is afebrile with normal vital signs. His entire physical examination is normal with the exception of the examination of is lower extremities. He has 3/5 strength throughout both of his lower extremities with a normal muscle mass. His all joints have a full range of motion, without any pain or swelling. His reflexes are absent and he describes some paresthesias of his feet and ankles

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management plan?

A. hospitalization and close observation for progression of his weakness

B. high-dose corticosteroids

C. gastric lavage and activated charcoal

D. outpatient family counseling

E. plasmaphoresis

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Correct Answer: A Section: (none)

Explanation: Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy, commonly called Guillain-Barré syndrome, is an ascending paralysis with a hallmark of absent reflexes. There may also be some nominal sensory deficits as well, but they are not as striking as the paresis. Methylphenidate toxicity usually results in seizures and tachycardia. In children with malingering, reflexes are usually present, as they are not under cognitive control. Reflexes are also present in children with polymyositis. Children with polymyositis will usually have fever and muscle pain with weakness, as well. With the use of the polio vaccines (OPV or IPV), poliomyelitis is no longer present in wild type in the United States. Guillain-Barré is usually a self-limited disease. The most common complication is respiratory failure. The paresis usually advances for 4872 hours and then will slowly recede. The use of corticosteroids is not recommended. Plasmaphoresis is used in the following situations: progressive paresis, nonambulatory patients, or bulbar or respiratory involvement. As this child's disease has plateaued at the time of evaluation, plasmaphoresis would be of little benefit.

Questions 8

A 16-year-old nulligravid high school student is on your afternoon office schedule for a "talk visit." She was seen last year by one of your colleagues for an initial GYN evaluation. She is healthy and has no medical problems. Today she tells you that she and her new boyfriend had intercourse the night before, and the condom they were using broke.

Your initial course of action should include which of the following?

A. placing an IUD

B. requesting that her parents be told of the situation

C. an examination and offer of sexually transmitted infections testing

D. performing a new obstetric workup

E. empirically treating her with ceftriaxone and doxycycline

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Correct Answer: C Section: (none)

Explanation:

Discussing the potential implications of her sexual activity is warranted, both in terms of potential pregnancy and risk of acquiring sexually transmitted infections. Making assumptions about her decision making (choices B and D) would breach the ethical principles of autonomy and confidentiality. In August 2006, the FDA approved emergency oral contraception (Plan B) to be available over the counter for women ages 18 and older. Younger women must have a prescription from a health care provider. Plan B contains 0.75 mg of levonorgestrel in two doses taken 12 hours apart. It is to be used within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse. The mechanisms of action include delay in ovulation, insufficient corpus luteum function, and interference with sperm transport. It is not an abortifacient. A physician is not obligated to provide treatments which conflict with his or her own personal belief system. Nonetheless, using ethical principles of autonomy, beneficience, nonmaleficence, veracity, and justice, physicians should discuss patients' requests for treatments in an attempt to reach common ground. If that is not possible, the physician should provide an alternative resource to address a patient's request.

Questions 9

A 19-year-old newly married female presents to the emergency room, accompanied by her spouse. She states that she awoke this morning to find that she could not move her legs. She denies any pain but claims that she is unable to feel anything below her abdomen. She denies any trauma or past medical history. She is 24 weeks' pregnant, has had an uneventful pregnancy, and only takes prenatal vitamins. She is concerned if her symptoms will get better and wonders whether the "baby is pulling on my spinal cord." Her neurologic examination is remarkable for 0/5 motor strength in her lower extremities bilaterally, with decreased sensation to light touch and pinprick below the level of her umbilicus. Her cranial nerves and reflexes are normal, and she does not display any upper motor neuron signs. A STAT MRI performed is read as normal.

Which of the following is the most likely explanation for her current symptoms?

A. conscious production of symptoms to assume the sick role

B. conscious production of symptoms to obtain secondary gain

C. pathology involving the central nervous system

D. pathology involving the peripheral nervous system

E. unconscious production of symptoms due to unconscious conflict

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Correct Answer: E Section: (none)

Explanation:

This young woman would be diagnosed with conversion disorder. The conscious production of symptoms to assume the sick role is the motivation underlying factitious disorder. Malingering is not a diagnosable mental illness but is the conscious inventing or exaggerating of physical or psychiatric symptoms in order to obtain secondary gain, such as disability benefits, or avoidance of work or a prison sentence. Given her unremarkable MRI, normal reflexes, absence of pathologic reflexes, and hemianesthesia along her umbilicus, her presentation is not consistent with either central or peripheral nervous system pathology. The apparent stressors of a new marriage and pregnancy are likely related to the genesis of her symptoms. Conversion symptoms are created through the unconscious production of neurologic symptoms due to unconscious conflict. While administering a "placebo," such as intravenous saline, may resolve her symptoms, it is both dishonest and unethical. Admission to neurology is unnecessary unless there is a concern regarding an actual underlying or comorbid disease. It may also serve to reinforce the somatization of her conflict. Confronting a patient with conversion disorder often results in a subsequent worsening of symptomatology. Consultation with a psychiatrist may be useful in helping the patient cope with the stress of her dysfunction but, in the emergency room, may also lead to feelings of not being believed and an increase in symptoms. Many cases of conversion disorder spontaneously remit, but recovery may be significantly facilitated through support, reassurance, and actual suggestion that improvement will occur.

Questions 10

A recent study compared two drugs--exemestane and tamoxifen--for the treatment of estrogenreceptor positive breast cancer in postmenopausal women. At the end of the study, 91.5% of the women treated with the drug exemestane and 86.8% of the women treated with tamoxifen were disease free (P < 0.001).

What is the absolute risk reduction (ARR) for the development of recurrent breast cancer for women taking exemestane compared to women taking tamoxifen?

A. 95.3%

B. 72%

C. 64%

D. 36%

E. 4.7%

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Correct Answer: E Section: (none)

Explanation: Explanations: Relative risk is the percentage of subjects who achieve an outcome in one experimental group divided by the percentage of subjects who achieve the same outcome in another group. This statistic is used frequently in placebo-controlled trials, where the comparison occurs between the experimental group and the control group. In the study referenced in this set of questions, the comparison is between two groups who were given two different active medications exemestane and tamoxifen. The outcome studied here is the development of recurrent breast cancer. The data presented state that after the course of treatment, 91.5% of the women in the exemestane group and 86.8% of the women in the tamoxifen group were disease free. Therefore, 8.5% in the exemestane group and 13.2% in the tamoxifen group developed the outcome of recurrent breast cancer. The relative risk is then calculated as 0.085/0.132 = 0.64 = 64%. The relative risk reduction is the percentage by which the risk in one group has been reduced when compared to the other group. In other words, if the rate of an outcome in one group is 100%, the relative risk reduction is the difference between 100% and the measured relative risk. It is calculated by the formula: Relative risk reduction = 1 -relative risk In this example, the relative risk reduction is 1 -0.64 = 0.36 = 36%.

The ARR, also known as the risk difference, is calculated by subtracting the percentage of subjects who achieve an outcome in one group from the percentage who achieve the outcome in another. In this study, the ARR for those in the exemestane group compared to those in the tamoxifen group is 13.2% -8.5% = 4.7%. The NNT is the number of subjects who need to receive an intervention (such as a medication) in order for one of them to have a beneficial outcome. In this study, the beneficial outcome would be one less case of recurrent breast cancer. The NNT is calculated as 1/ARR. In this case, the NNT = 1/0.047 = 21. In other words, 21 women need to be treated with exemestane in order for there to be one fewer case of recurrent breast cancer compared to women treated with tamoxifen.

Questions 11

While you are working in the community health center, a 40-year-old male presents to you as a referral from the dental clinic. The patient reported on the intake history form at the dental office that he had rheumatic fever at the age of 7. The dentist refused to allow him to have a dental examination and cleaning until he was cleared by a medical doctor. Other than rheumatic fever, the patient has no medical history and does not take any medications. He denies chest pain, palpitations, dyspnea, or any other symptoms. On examination, he has normal vital signs and a normal general examination. On auscultation of his heart, you hear a 2/6 systolic ejection murmur at the left upper sternal border without radiation. Review of his chart shows that he had an echocardiogram approximately 9 months ago that revealed mild mitral valve prolapse without evidence of mitral regurgitation, but otherwise normal valves and cardiac function.

Which of the following would be the most appropriate management at this time?

A. Proceed with the dental work.

B. Give the patient a 2 g dose of oral amoxicillin and then perform the dental cleaning an hour later.

C. Delay the dental work until the patient can undergo a repeat echocardiogram.

D. Delay the dental work until the patient is cleared by a cardiologist.

E. Allow the patient to undergo the dental cleaning now, but caution that he will need antibiotic prophylaxis if he requires any fillings.

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Correct Answer: A Section: (none)

Explanation: Explanations: Bacterial endocarditis is a rare, but life-threatening, disease. It occurs primarily in persons with underlying structural heart defects who develop bacteremia with organisms that are likely to cause endocarditis. Most cases of endocarditis are not a complication of invasive medical or dental procedures. Because of the risks associated with the disease, efforts should be made to prevent bacterial endocarditis when appropriate. The American Heart Association has published updated, evidence-based recommendations on the prevention of bacterial endocarditis. These guidelines are available at the American Heart Association web site (www.americanheart.org). These guidelines outline conditions for which endocarditis prophylaxis is appropriate, procedures for which endocarditis prophylaxis is necessary, and antibiotic regimens that are recommended.

Cardiac conditions are stratified into high-risk, moderate-risk, and negligible risk. Negligible risk conditions are those in which, although endocarditis may develop, the risk is no greater than in the general population. This patient has a history of rheumatic fever, which can potentially result in high-risk valvular damage. However, his echocardiogram did not reveal any such condition. Mitral valve prolapse without a regurgitant jet (which is not a complication of rheumatic fever) is considered a negligible risk condition, so the proposed dental work can proceed without delay. Of the conditions listed in question 30, only bicuspid aortic valve would require antibiotic prophylaxis, as it is a moderate-risk congenital cardiac malformation. All of the other conditions listed are considered to be of negligible risk. Procedures which require antibiotic prophylaxis are those which produce a significant bacteremia with organisms commonly causing endocarditis. For dental procedures, those that tend to cause significant bleeding from hard or soft tissues would necessitate prophylaxis. Of the procedures listed, only dental extraction is likely to do this. During the course of other procedures, if unexpected significant bleeding occurs, antibiotics within 2 hours following the procedure would be recommended

Questions 12

Your patient who was recently prescribed an antibiotic returns to your clinic for a follow-up visit. Although she was feeling better, the instructions on the bottle were to take the medication for total of 10 days. She wants to know if she still has to take the medication three times daily as she has improved. You explain to her that the dosing regimen is based on the biological half-life of a drug, which is generally related to which of the following?

A. the time for a drug to be absorbed into the blood

B. the time for a drug to take effect following administration

C. the time for the body burden of a drug to be reduced by 50%

D. the serum concentration of a drug that is 50% of the toxic level

E. a value that is half the duration of action of a drug

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Correct Answer: C Section: (none)

Explanation:

The biological half-life of a drug is the time required for 50% of the dose to be eliminated. This value is useful in determining the duration of a drug's effect and therefore proper drug dose regimes.

Questions 13

A 67-year-old female was admitted to the hospital because of chronic fatigue and low back pain. An x-ray of the vertebral column showed diffuse osteoporosis and compression fractures of L1 and L2 vertebral bodies. The complete blood count (CBC) was within normal limits. The peripheral blood smear showed rouleaux formation. The immunoelectrophoresis showed a monoclonal spike of more than 3 g. A bone marrow biopsy was performed and showed an increase of more than 20% in plasma cells see Figure below

Radiographs of the bone and skeletal system in multiple myeloma will more characteristically show which of the following?

A. fractures

B. osteoblastic lesions

C. destructive bone lesions throughout the skeletal system

D. the skeletal system will remain intact

E. changes that resemble Paget disease

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Correct Answer: C Section: (none)

Explanation: Multiple myeloma is a plasma cell dyscrasia that is characterized by involvement of the skeleton in multiple sites. The characteristic x-ray shows punched-out bone lesions that are very easily seen in the calvarium. Extension of the disease to lymph nodes and extranodal sites, such as skin, can be seen. The bone marrow biopsy and smears reveal an increased number of plasma cells, which usually constitute greater than 20% of all of the cells. The cells either diffusely infiltrate and replace the marrow elements or can be seen scattered throughout the hematopoietic elements. The neoplastic plasma cells have a perinuclear hof and an eccentrically placed nucleus which allows the recognition. In 99% of patients with multiple myeloma, electrophoretic analysis reveals increased levels of IgG in the blood, light chains (Bence-Jones proteins) in the urine, or both. The monoclonal IgG produces a high spike when seen in the serum or in the urine, subject to electrophoresis. In general, the quantitative analysis of the monoclonal IgG is more than 3 g. The clinicopathologic diagnosis of multiple myeloma rests on radiographic and laboratory findings. Marrow examination may reveal increased plasma cells or sheet-like aggregates that may completely replace the normal elements. The prognosis for this condition is variable, but generally poor.

Exam Code: USMLE-STEP-3
Exam Name: United States Medical Licensing Step 3
Last Update: Jun 08, 2025
Questions: 804

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